Chapter A — Polity & Governance

Coverage: Jan 2025 – Jun 2026. Sources: PIB, PRS, Rashtrapati Bhavan assent list, Supreme Court of India, MHA, MoLJ, ECI, The Hindu, Indian Express, LiveLaw, Vision IAS, Insights IAS.

Contents

1. Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill — One Nation One Election (ONOE)
2. Constitution (130th & 131st Amendment) Bills — Removal of Ministers on Detention; Delimitation
3. Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 + Supreme Court Interim Order
4. Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025
5. Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025
6. Income-Tax Act, 2025 (Direct Tax Code rewrite)
7. National Sports Governance Act, 2025 + National Anti-Doping Amendment, 2025
8. SHANTI Act, 2025 (Nuclear Energy reforms)
9. Merchant Shipping Act, 2025 + Coastal Shipping Act, 2025 + Indian Ports Act, 2025 + Bills of Lading Act, 2025
10. Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026
11. Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026
12. Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill, 2026
13. Industrial Relations Code (Amendment) Bill, 2026 + Labour Codes Operationalisation
14. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act, 2025 / 2026
15. Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2025
16. Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025 (notified Nov 2025)
17. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita / BNSS / BSA — implementation update
18. Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act — pending challenge
19. SC Constitution Bench: Gayatri Balasamy v ISG Novasoft — modification of arbitral awards
20. SC: Tamil Nadu Governor v State of TN + Presidential Reference advisory
21. SC: Vanashakti overruled — ex post facto Environmental Clearances
22. SC: Waqf interim stay (Sec 3(r), 3C)
23. SC: Hamsaanandini Nanduri v UoI — adoptive mothers' maternity
24. SC: Forest Conservation continuing mandamus (Lafarge/Godavarman line)
25. SC: Section 6A Citizenship Act upheld (Constitution Bench)
26. SC: Aligarh Muslim University minority status (Azeez Basha overruled)
27. SC: Tribunals Reforms Act — Madras Bar Association line
28. SC strength expansion 34 → 38
29. 16th Finance Commission — terms of reference + Report 2026-31
30. Manipur President's Rule Extension (Article 356(4))
31. Special discussion on "Vande Mataram 150" + Election Reforms debate
32. Repealing and Amending Act, 2025
33. PRAGATI Platform — Proactive Governance and Timely Implementation
34. New Aadhaar App + Aadhaar regulatory updates
35. CISF designated as safety regulator for Indian seaports

▣ At the close: subject-wise prelims facts strip + 15-MCQ practice block.

1. Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill — One Nation One Election (ONOE)

2. Why in News. Bill introduced in Lok Sabha (Dec 2024) and referred to a Joint Parliamentary Committee chaired by P.P. Chaudhary; JPC continues deliberations through 2025–26 with multiple extensions; companion bill — Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024 — also in committee.

3. What it is. A constitutional amendment to synchronise elections to the Lok Sabha and all State Legislative Assemblies (and, in a second phase, urban and rural local bodies within 100 days), based on the High-Level Committee (HLC) report chaired by former President Ram Nath Kovind (Sep 2023 → submitted Mar 2024).

4. Key facts for Prelims.

• Proposes new Article 82A ("Simultaneous elections to House of the People and all Legislative Assemblies").
• Amends Articles 83 (duration of Houses), 172 (duration of State Legislatures), 327 (Parliament's power to make election laws).
• "Appointed date" to be notified by President after the first sitting of a fresh Lok Sabha; all State Assemblies' terms terminate together with that Lok Sabha.
• If an Assembly is dissolved mid-cycle → fresh election only for the unexpired term (mid-term election).
• ECI to prepare a single electoral roll and single voter ID in consultation with State Election Commissions (separate bill).

5. Static Link. Laxmikanth — Election Commission, Anti-Defection, Parliament. NCERT Class XI Indian Constitution at Work — federalism chapter.

6. Constitutional linkage. Affects basic structure debate around federalism and periodicity of elections; requires ratification by ≥½ of States for parts touching State legislatures (Article 368(2) proviso).

8. Data/Bodies linked. HLC (Kovind), ECI, Law Commission's 170th & 255th Reports, NITI Aayog 2017 working paper.

10. Why UPSC can ask this. The Articles list (82A new, 83, 172, 327, 368), the HLC chair, ratification requirement, and the mid-term election mechanic are all clean factual hooks.

11. Prelims facts.

• Article 82A → simultaneous elections (proposed, new)
• HLC chair: Ram Nath Kovind
• Companion bill for UTs (J&K, Puducherry, NCT Delhi)
• Local-body synchronisation via separate constitutional amendment under Article 368 + State ratification
• Status (Jun 2026): JPC stage

⚠ UPSC Trap. ONOE does not propose a fixed-term Lok Sabha; the LS can still be dissolved early — only the mid-term LS serves the unexpired term.

🎯 Prelims Angle. "Consider the following statements about the Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill: (1) It inserts Article 82A. (2) It requires ratification by half the States. (3) It abolishes the office of State Election Commission." Which are correct? Answer: 1 and 2 only.

13. One-line summary. Article 82A (proposed) synchronises LS & all State Assembly elections; Kovind HLC blueprint; JPC stage.

2. Constitution (130th) & (131st) Amendment Bills

130th Amendment Bill, 2025 — Removal of Ministers upon Detention

• Provides for automatic cessation of office of the Prime Minister, a Union Minister, Chief Minister, or State Minister if detained for 30 consecutive days under any law providing for preventive detention or on serious criminal charges (offence punishable with ≥5 years).
• Companion bills: Government of Union Territories (Amendment) Bill, 2025; Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2025.
• Status: Referred to a Joint Committee of Parliament; in Committee as of Jun 2026.

131st Amendment Bill, 2026 — Delimitation

• Introduced post-2026 Budget Session; provides constitutional framework for the next Delimitation Exercise based on the first Census after 2026 (when the Article 82 / 170 freeze ends).
• Key concern in committee: equity between southern States (population-stable) and northern States (population-rising) in Lok Sabha seat allocation.
• Linked: expansion of Lok Sabha strength beyond 543 (new Parliament building can accommodate ~888 LS seats).

🔗 Static Link. Laxmikanth — Parliament, Delimitation Commission, Anti-Defection.

⚠ UPSC Trap. A Delimitation Commission is a statutory body (Delimitation Act); it is not a permanent body and its orders cannot be challenged in any court (Article 329(a)).

13. One-line summary. 130th = Minister cessation on 30-day detention; 131st = framework for post-2026 delimitation.

3. Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 + SC Interim Order

Why in News. Passed by Parliament 4–5 April 2025; assented 5 Apr 2025. Mussalman Wakf (Repeal) Act, 2025 simultaneously repealed the 1923 Act. SC, in In re: Waqf (Amendment) Act 2025 (interim order Sep 2025), stayed two provisions while permitting the rest to operate.

What it is. Amends Waqf Act, 1995 to introduce digital registration of waqf properties, inclusion of women and non-Muslim members in Waqf Boards and the Central Waqf Council, end of "waqf by user" recognition without documentation, and shift of property-title disputes from Waqf Tribunals to government revenue officers (Collector and above).

Key facts.

• Renamed: "Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development Act" (UMEED Act tag in media).
• Composition of Central Waqf Council & State Waqf Boards: now allows non-Muslim members, 2 women members mandatory, ex-officio MPs/MLAs.
• Section 3(r) (stayed by SC) — required a person to have practised Islam for ≥5 years before creating a waqf; SC stayed for absence of verification mechanism.
• Section 3C (stayed) — transferred property-title disputes to revenue officers; SC held it violates separation of powers.
• Digital portal mandated; survey by District Collector (replacing Survey Commissioner).

Static Link. Laxmikanth — Tribunals, Personal Laws, Article 26 (freedom to manage religious affairs).

11. Prelims facts.

• Original Waqf Act year: 1995
• Mussalman Wakf Act repealed: 1923
• SC interim order: Sep 2025; stayed Sec 3(r) & 3C
• New Central Waqf Council: women members compulsory
• Article invoked in challenge: 14, 25, 26, 29, 30

⚠ UPSC Trap. Waqf Tribunals continue to exist; the SC stayed the transfer of title disputes to revenue officers, not the tribunal system. Also: the Mussalman Wakf (Repeal) Act, 2025 and the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 are two different laws passed together.

13. One-line summary. Waqf Amendment 2025 — UMEED Act; digital registration, non-Muslim & women members; Sec 3(r), 3C stayed by SC.

4. Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025

Why in News. Passed in Monsoon Session 2025; assented Aug 2025.

What it is. First comprehensive Central law to regulate online gaming, with blanket prohibition on online money games (real-money / wagering games). It also creates a framework to promote online social games and e-sports.

Key facts.

• Bans "online money games" (any online game requiring monetary deposit with expectation of monetary return).
• Recognises and promotes e-sports and online social games.
• Designated authority: an Online Gaming Authority of India under MeitY.
• Penalties: up to 3 years' imprisonment + ₹1 crore fine for offering banned money games; advertising banned money games separately punishable.
• Overrides State laws on the subject only to the extent of online money games (uses Union List entries 31, 97).

Static Link. Laxmikanth — Centre-State legislative relations (Seventh Schedule). The "skill vs chance" doctrine of SC (State of A.P. v K. Satyanarayana; RMD Chamarbaugwala) is the static backdrop.

⚠ UPSC Trap. The law does not ban fantasy sports per se; it bans online money games. Whether a game is "money" turns on monetary deposit/return, not on skill/chance.

13. One-line summary. Online money games banned; e-sports & social games promoted; MeitY-led authority; passed Aug 2025.

5. Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025

Why in News. Assented 28 Mar 2025; replaces four colonial-era laws: Passport (Entry into India) Act 1920, Registration of Foreigners Act 1939, Foreigners Act 1946, Immigration (Carriers' Liability) Act 2000.

Key facts.

• Single consolidated immigration framework; Bureau of Immigration becomes statutory.
• Mandates carriers (airlines, shipping) to share Advance Passenger Information (API) and Passenger Name Record (PNR) with immigration authorities.
• Penalties for forging visas; imprisonment up to 7 years.
• Empowers Centre to designate immigration check posts.
• Distinguishes Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) status; codifies grounds for cancellation.

Static Link. Laxmikanth — Citizenship (Articles 5–11); Citizenship Act 1955; OCI provisions.

⚠ UPSC Trap. The Act does not alter the Citizenship Act 1955; it deals with entry, stay, and exit of foreigners.

13. One-line summary. Single immigration statute replacing 4 colonial laws; statutory Bureau of Immigration; API/PNR sharing mandated.

6. Income-Tax Act, 2025

Why in News. Income-Tax (No.2) Bill, 2025 passed in Monsoon Session 2025, assented as Income Tax Act, 2025; replaces the Income-Tax Act, 1961. (Earlier Income-Tax Bill 2025 introduced Feb 2025 was withdrawn after Select Committee report and re-introduced as No. 2.)

Key facts.

• Replaces 1961 Act after 64 years; reduces ~819 sections to ~536, eliminates 1,200+ provisos and 900 explanations.
• Replaces "Previous Year/Assessment Year" duality with single concept of "Tax Year".
• Retains existing rates and the two regimes (old vs new).
• New consolidated chapter on digital assets / virtual digital assets.
• Enables faceless appeals end-to-end.
• Effective from 1 April 2026 (AY 2026-27).

🔗 Static Link. Bipan Chandra — taxation post-1991; NCERT macroeconomics; Indian Economy by Ramesh Singh — direct tax reforms.

⚠ UPSC Trap. This is not the Direct Tax Code (DTC) of the 2009/2010 draft — it is a clean rewrite drawing from DTC principles but distinct.

13. One-line summary. Income Tax Act 2025 replaces 1961 Act; introduces "Tax Year"; effective 1 Apr 2026; no rate change.

7. National Sports Governance Act, 2025 + National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Act, 2025

Why in News. Passed together in Monsoon Session 2025 ahead of India's bid for 2036 Olympics.

National Sports Governance Act, 2025 — Key facts.

• Provides statutory framework for National Sports Federations (NSFs) and the Indian Olympic Association (IOA).
• Creates National Sports Board (recognition & dispute resolution), National Sports Tribunal, and National Sports Election Panel.
• Age cap (70) and term limits (max 3 terms of 4 years each) for NSF office-bearers.
• Mandates 30% women representation in NSF executive committees.
• Establishes Sports Ombudsman; brings NSFs under RTI Act for sports-public-functions.

National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Act, 2025 — Key facts.

• Strengthens autonomy of National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA).
• Aligns with WADA Code; corrects WADA's earlier objections on NADA independence.
• Creates an independent National Board for Anti-Doping in Sports.

🔗 Static Link. Yojana sports issue (2025); Khelo India; Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS).

⚠ UPSC Trap. NADA is the implementing body; WADA (HQ Montreal) is the international body; NDTL (National Dope Testing Laboratory) is the testing lab.

13. One-line summary. NSF/IOA statutorised; Sports Board, Tribunal, Ombudsman; WADA-compliant NADA; 2036 Olympic bid backdrop.

8. Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Act, 2025

Why in News. Passed in Winter Session 2025.

Key facts.

• Amends Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010 (CLNDA) to permit private and foreign participation in nuclear power generation.
• Removes the supplier-liability rider (CLNDA §17(b)) that had deterred GE-Hitachi/Westinghouse/EDF.
• Provides framework for Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) under the Bharat Small Reactor (BSR) programme.
• Target: 100 GW nuclear capacity by 2047 (current ~8.18 GW); 50% private share envisaged.
• Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) gets greater operational autonomy (statutory independence retained).

🔗 Static Link. Shankar IAS Environment — non-conventional energy chapter; Bhabha 3-stage programme; Kudankulam, Kakrapar, Kaiga reactor lines.

⚠ UPSC Trap. AEA 1962 only amended, not repealed. CLNDA is not repealed; the Convention on Supplementary Compensation for Nuclear Damage (CSC) framework is now operationally clearer.

11. Prelims facts.

• India's 3-stage programme: PHWR → FBR → Thorium-based
• Current operating reactors (as of 2026): 24
• Kalpakkam: PFBR (Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor) — Stage II
• IAEA HQ: Vienna; India not an NPT signatory; India in NSG waiver since 2008

13. One-line summary. SHANTI Act 2025 opens nuclear to private/foreign; SMRs/BSR; 100 GW by 2047; CLNDA §17(b) softened.

9. Maritime Quartet — Merchant Shipping Act 2025 + Coastal Shipping Act 2025 + Indian Ports Act 2025 + Bills of Lading Act 2025

Why in News. Maritime law overhaul completed in 2025 sessions; replaces 19th- and 20th-century statutes.

Key facts.

• Merchant Shipping Act, 2025 — replaces 1958 Act; aligns with IMO conventions (MARPOL, SOLAS, MLC); permits Indian-flagged shipping ownership by entities with ≥51% Indian beneficial ownership (relaxed from 100%); incentivises seafarer-friendly provisions.
• Coastal Shipping Act, 2025 — promotes cabotage relaxation; National Coastal and Inland Shipping Strategic Plan.
• Indian Ports Act, 2025 — replaces 1908 Act; restructures Major Port Authorities; creates Maritime State Development Council statutorily; integrates with Sagarmala.
• Bills of Lading Act, 2025 — replaces Indian Bills of Lading Act, 1856; modernises shipping documentation for electronic bills.
• Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 2025 — replaces 1925 Act; aligns with Hague-Visby Rules.

Linked institutional update. CISF designated as the safety regulator for Indian seaports (replaces ad-hoc port-level security) — MHA notification, late 2025.

🔗 Static Link. Sagarmala (2015), Maritime India Vision 2030, Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047, PM Gati Shakti.

13. One-line summary. Five maritime statutes recodified in 2025; CISF = seaport safety regulator; alignment with IMO conventions.

10. Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026

Why in News. Earlier Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025 (introduced Aug 2025) referred to Select Committee; withdrawn Mar 2026 and re-introduced as Jan Vishwas Bill, 2026 based on Committee report (49 sittings).

Key facts.

• Decriminalises 717 provisions across 79 Central Acts administered by 23 Ministries (cf. Jan Vishwas Act 2023 which decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 Acts).
• Replaces imprisonment with monetary penalties; introduces advisory → warning → civil penalty ladder for first/second/subsequent offences in select Acts.
• Creates adjudicating officers and appellate authorities for adjudication of penalties.
• Aims at Ease of Doing Business and Ease of Living.

⚠ UPSC Trap. First Jan Vishwas Act was 2023 (effective 2024 in tranches); the 2026 Bill is the second round.

13. One-line summary. Jan Vishwas 2026 — decriminalises 717 provisions across 79 Acts; adjudicating officer framework; second round after 2023.

11. Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026

Why in News. Passed by Parliament 24–25 Mar 2026 (Budget Session 2026).

Key facts.

• Amends Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019.
• Excludes social orientations from the ambit of the statute (distinguishes transgender identity from sexual orientation).
• Introduces graded punishment based on gravity of harm to a transgender person (replaces the flat 6 months–2 years sentence).
• Strengthens National Council for Transgender Persons (statutory body under MoSJE).

🔗 Static Link. NALSA v Union of India (2014), Navtej Singh Johar (2018), Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (2017).

⚠ UPSC Trap. The 2019 Act required transgender identity certificate from District Magistrate — that remains; the 2026 Amendment does not change the certification route.

13. One-line summary. Transgender Act 2019 amended in 2026 — graded penalties; clarifies identity vs sexual orientation; National Council strengthened.

12. Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill, 2026

Key facts. Provides a single statutory framework for general administration (recruitment, conditions of service, discipline, welfare) of all CAPFs: CRPF, BSF, CISF, ITBP, SSB, Assam Rifles, NSG. Until 2026, each force had its own Act; the new Bill consolidates common provisions while retaining force-specific statutes.

🔗 Static Link. MHA structure; Internal Security by Ashok Kumar.

⚠ UPSC Trap. Assam Rifles — administrative control = MHA; operational control = Indian Army (MoD). NSG — MHA. CISF — MHA; now also designated seaport safety regulator (2025).

13. One-line summary. Common administrative statute for CAPFs (CRPF, BSF, CISF, ITBP, SSB, Assam Rifles, NSG) — passed Budget Session 2026.

13. Industrial Relations Code (Amendment) Bill, 2026 + Operationalisation of Four Labour Codes

Why in News. Four Labour Codes operationalised in stages through 2025–26; IR Code Amendment 2026 introduced to address state-rule harmonisation.

The Four Codes (consolidated 29 central laws):

Key facts.

• All four notified in stages; substantial provisions came into force through 2025–26.
• Threshold for retrenchment without government permission raised from 100 → 300 workers (IR Code).
• New concept of "fixed-term employment" with end-of-contract gratuity entitlement.
• Universal social security rolled out for gig and platform workers via e-Shram linkage (Code on Social Security §141).
• National Social Security Board for unorganised, gig and platform workers operational.

🔗 Static Link. Indian Economy — labour reforms; Shram Suvidha Portal; e-Shram (registered ~30+ crore workers by 2026).

13. One-line summary. 4 Labour Codes operationalised; 300-worker retrenchment threshold; gig workers brought under social security via e-Shram.

14. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act, 2025/2026

Why in News. IBC (Amendment) Bill, 2025 passed; further IBC (Amendment) Bill, 2026 introduced in Budget Session.

Key facts.

• Introduces Cross-Border Insolvency Framework based on UNCITRAL Model Law.
• Group insolvency mechanism for connected entities.
• Pre-packaged insolvency extended beyond MSMEs.
• Creditor-Led Insolvency Resolution Process for select cases.
• Strengthens role of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI).

⚠ UPSC Trap. NCLT (adjudicating authority for corporate insolvency) is statutory under Companies Act 2013; DRT is for individual insolvency under IBC.

13. One-line summary. IBC 2025/26 — cross-border (UNCITRAL Model Law), group insolvency, expanded pre-pack; IBBI strengthened.

15. Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2025

Key facts.

• Provides for exploration and auction of 24 critical minerals as part of National Critical Mineral Mission (2025).
• Centre empowered to directly auction blocks for critical and strategic minerals (lithium, cobalt, graphite, REEs, etc.) — bypasses State auction.
• Creates Exploration Licence as a new mineral concession (separate from PL/ML).
• Increases royalty for critical minerals; revenue-share to host states clarified.

🔗 Static Link. Critical Minerals list (MoM, 2023; 30 minerals); KABIL (Khanij Bidesh India Ltd); India joined Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in 2023.

⚠ UPSC Trap. Exploration Licence ≠ Composite Licence ≠ Mining Lease. Lithium reserves discovered in Reasi (J&K) — first such notification.

13. One-line summary. MMDR 2025 — Centre auctions critical minerals; new Exploration Licence; National Critical Mineral Mission backdrop.

16. Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Rules, 2025

Why in News. Final rules notified by MeitY in November 2025; implementation runway of 18 months (full enforcement by mid-2027).

Key facts.

• Operationalises DPDP Act, 2023.
• Establishes the Data Protection Board of India (DPBI) as digital-by-design adjudicatory body.
• Verifiable parental consent for processing data of children (<18).
• Significant Data Fiduciary (SDF) designation criteria notified.
• Consent Manager registration framework operational.
• Cross-border data transfer follows negative list approach (default permitted unless restricted).

⚠ UPSC Trap. DPDP Act = personal data only (not non-personal data; that is being handled separately under the proposed Digital India Act). RTI Act §8(1)(j) was amended by DPDP Act — narrows public-interest disclosure of personal information.

🔗 Static Link. Puttaswamy (2017) — Right to Privacy; B.N. Srikrishna Committee 2018; Joint Parliamentary Committee 2021.

13. One-line summary. DPDP Rules notified Nov 2025; DPBI constituted; consent manager + SDF + child-data safeguards; full enforcement mid-2027.

17. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita / BNSS / BSA — Implementation Update

Why in News. Three new criminal laws — Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023, Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023 — fully came into force 1 July 2024; first full year of operation reviewed in 2025–26.

Key facts.

• Replaced IPC 1860, CrPC 1973, Indian Evidence Act 1872 respectively.
• BNS retains 358 sections (IPC had 511); introduces organised crime, terrorism, mob lynching as standalone offences.
• Section 152 BNS (acts endangering sovereignty/unity/integrity) — under SC challenge as alleged reintroduction of sedition (Vombatkere petition).
• BNSS — caps police custody at 15 days but allows it to be served in instalments within the first 60/90 days (judicially controversial).
• BSA — recognises electronic records as primary evidence; chain-of-custody rules tightened.

⚠ UPSC Trap. Sedition (former IPC §124A) has not been technically retained — but Section 152 BNS covers similar conduct with wider language. SC has issued notice (2025) but no ruling yet.

13. One-line summary. BNS / BNSS / BSA operational since 1 Jul 2024; §152 BNS under SC challenge; e-records as primary evidence.

18. CEC and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment) Act — Pending Challenge

Why in News. Challenge to Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 under hearing — petitioners argue the exclusion of CJI from the selection committee violates Anoop Baranwal v Union of India (2023).

Key facts.

• Selection committee = Prime Minister + Union Minister nominated by PM + Leader of Opposition in LS (CJI dropped).
• Anoop Baranwal (2023) had directed a PM + LoP + CJI committee until Parliament legislated.
• Article involved: 324 (Election Commission), 14, 21.
• ECI strength: 1 CEC + 2 ECs; tenure 6 years or 65 yrs.

⚠ UPSC Trap. CEC removal = like SC judge (Article 324(5)); EC removal = on CEC's recommendation only.

13. One-line summary. Selection committee = PM + Union Minister + LoP (no CJI); under SC challenge; Article 324 backbone.

19. SC Constitution Bench — Gayatri Balasamy v ISG Novasoft (30 Apr 2025)

Issue. Whether appellate courts can modify an arbitral award under §34/§37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.

Holding (4:1, CJI Khanna majority).

• Courts can sever non-arbitrable portions of an award and modify limited parts.
• Article 142 powers can be invoked with caution to modify an award.
• Justice K.V. Viswanathan dissenting — courts have no modification power; only setting-aside.

🔗 Static Link. Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996; India's pro-arbitration push; Singapore International Arbitration Centre comparison.

13. One-line summary. Gayatri Balasamy (2025) — appellate courts can modify arbitral awards in limited ways; 4:1; A&C Act §34/§37.

20. SC — Tamil Nadu Governor v State of Tamil Nadu (Apr 2025) + Presidential Reference

Issue 1 (Apr 2025). Whether the Governor can indefinitely sit on bills under Article 200.

Holding. Governor does not have absolute veto. SC laid down timelines — 1 month for ordinary action; if reserved for President, President must decide in 3 months.

Issue 2 (Presidential Reference, Nov 2025). President invoked Article 143 — only the 16th Presidential Reference in history — challenging the prescriptive timelines.

Advisory Opinion (Constitution Bench, 2025–26).

• Agreed Governor has no absolute veto.
• Struck down the judicially fixed timelines — held these are matters for Parliament.
• Reaffirmed President's powers under Articles 200 and 201 are discretionary in defined circumstances.

🔗 Static Link. Laxmikanth — Governor (Articles 153–162, 200, 201); Sarkaria Commission; Punchhi Commission.

⚠ UPSC Trap. Article 200 = State Bills to Governor; Article 201 = Bills reserved for President. Article 143 = Presidential Reference; SC's opinion is advisory (not binding) but always treated as authoritative.

13. One-line summary. Governor's veto = not absolute; SC's timelines struck down by Article 143 advisory; only 16th Presidential Reference.

21. SC — Vanashakti Overruled; Ex Post Facto Environmental Clearances

Holding (2025, 2:1). Three-judge bench of former CJI Gavai + Justice K.V. Chandran (majority), Justice Ujjal Bhuyan dissenting — overruled Vanashakti v UoI. Held that ex post facto Environmental Clearances are not per se illegal and can be granted sparingly.

🔗 Static Link. EIA Notification 2006; Environment (Protection) Act 1986; National Green Tribunal Act 2010.

⚠ UPSC Trap. SC has not authorised routine ex-post-facto ECs — only that they are not unconstitutional; case-by-case basis.

13. One-line summary. Vanashakti overruled (2025) — ex post facto EC permissible in sparing cases; EIA 2006 framework intact.

22. SC — Waqf Interim Stay (Sep 2025)

Holding. Bench stayed Section 3(r) (5-year practising Muslim requirement) for absence of verification mechanism; stayed Section 3C (revenue-officer adjudication of title disputes) for breaching separation of powers. Rest of Waqf Amendment 2025 allowed to operate.

13. One-line summary. Sec 3(r) & 3C of Waqf Amendment 2025 stayed; rest of Act operative.

23. SC — Hamsaanandini Nanduri v UoI (2026)

Holding. Section 60(4) of Social Security Code, 2020 — insofar as it restricts maternity benefit to adoptive mothers whose adopted child is under 3 months — violates Articles 14 & 21.

🔗 Static Link. Maternity Benefit Act 1961 (subsumed in Code on Social Security 2020); Article 39(d) DPSP.

13. One-line summary. 3-month age limit on adoptive maternity benefit struck down as violative of Articles 14 & 21.

24. SC Forest Conservation — Continuing Mandamus (T.N. Godavarman line, 2025)

Holding (2025). Enforced strict central control over diversion of forest land; held continuing mandamus and judicial oversight of forest governance; reaffirmed broad definition of "forest" from T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad v UoI (1996).

⚠ UPSC Trap. The Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam, 2023 (Forest Conservation Amendment 2023) had narrowed the "deemed forest" definition; SC's 2025 line affirms broader Godavarman test continues for protection purposes.

13. One-line summary. Godavarman broad-forest test reaffirmed; continuing mandamus; Forest Conservation Amendment 2023 read consistently with broader test.

25. SC — Section 6A Citizenship Act Upheld (Constitution Bench, Oct 2024 → operative 2025)

Holding (4:1, ex-CJI Chandrachud majority). Section 6A (cut-off 25 March 1971 for migrants from Bangladesh into Assam) upheld as constitutionally valid.

Key facts.

• Section 6A inserted via Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 1985 — gave effect to Assam Accord (1985).
• Cut-off 25 March 1971 = date of Operation Search Light by Pakistan Army.
• Migrants between 1 Jan 1966 – 24 Mar 1971 must register under §18 of Foreigners Act and lose voting rights for 10 years.
• Post-25 March 1971 entrants = illegal migrants; deportation under Foreigners Act.

🔗 Static Link. Citizenship Act 1955; CAA 2019; NRC; Assam Accord.

13. One-line summary. Section 6A Citizenship Act upheld 4:1 (Oct 2024); 25 March 1971 cut-off rational; Assam Accord constitutional.

26. SC — Aligarh Muslim University (Nov 2024 → operative 2025)

Holding (4:3, ex-CJI Chandrachud majority). Azeez Basha v UoI (1967) overruled — AMU can be a minority institution under Article 30; question of factual minority status remitted to regular bench applying the new tests.

Tests for minority institution.

1. Who established? (Genetic test — community must have brought it into existence.)
2. Why established? (To preserve language/script/culture or for general education benefit of community.)
3. Statutory recognition does not erase minority character.

🔗 Static Link. Article 30(1) — right of minorities to establish/administer educational institutions; T.M.A. Pai Foundation (2002); P.A. Inamdar (2005); St. Stephen's (1992).

13. One-line summary. AMU minority status — Azeez Basha overruled (Nov 2024); 4:3; new tests under Article 30 framed.

27. SC — Tribunals Reforms Act Line + Constitutional Validity

Ongoing. Madras Bar Association line continues — tenure of 4 yrs (vs 5), minimum age 50 (vs 45), and Search-cum-Selection Committee composition repeatedly held to violate basic structure of judicial independence.

⚠ UPSC Trap. Tribunals Reforms Act 2021 abolished 8 appellate tribunals (FAT, IPAB, AAA, Film Cert App Tribunal, Plant Varieties Protection App Tribunal, etc.).

13. One-line summary. Tribunals Reforms Act 2021 — Madras Bar Association line; 4-year tenure & 50-age bar repeatedly struck.

28. Supreme Court Strength Expansion 34 → 38

Why in News. Union Cabinet approved (2025) raising sanctioned strength of SC judges from 34 to 38 (including CJI). Implemented through amendment of Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956.

⚠ UPSC Trap. Original SC strength = 8 (Constitution); raised to 11 (1956), 14 (1960), 18 (1978), 26 (1986), 31 (2009), 34 (2019), 38 (2025).

13. One-line summary. SC strength 34 → 38 in 2025; Article 124(1) + SC (Number of Judges) Act 1956 amended.

29. Sixteenth Finance Commission (Report 2026–31)

Why in News. 16th FC chaired by Arvind Panagariya (Member-Secretary: Ritvik Pandey) submitted its Report on 2026-27 to 2030-31 in 2026; tabled in Parliament; Action Taken Report adopted.

Key facts.

• Constituted under Article 280 of the Constitution.
• Terms of Reference (notified Nov 2023) — vertical devolution from Centre's divisible pool; horizontal distribution among States; grants under Articles 275 & 270; measures to augment State Consolidated Funds for local bodies.
• 15th FC had recommended 41% vertical devolution.
• 16th FC ToR emphasises disaster management financing and review of CSS rationalisation.

🔗 Static Link. Laxmikanth — Finance Commission (Articles 280, 281); GST Council (Article 279A); Inter-State Council (Article 263).

⚠ UPSC Trap. GST Council = Article 279A (not 280). Finance Commission = Article 280. NITI Aayog = executive resolution (no constitutional status).

13. One-line summary. 16th FC (Panagariya) — Report 2026-31; Article 280; vertical/horizontal devolution; CSS & disaster finance focus.

30. Manipur — President's Rule Extension (Article 356(4))

Why in News. President's Rule in Manipur (imposed 13 Feb 2025 after Chief Minister Biren Singh's resignation amid ethnic conflict) was extended for six months from 13 Aug 2025 under Article 356(4), with parliamentary approval.

🔗 Static Link. Article 356 — Failure of constitutional machinery; S.R. Bommai v UoI (1994) — judicial review of 356; secularism as basic structure.

⚠ UPSC Trap. Article 356(4) — President's Rule beyond 1 year requires (a) National Emergency in operation + (b) ECI certification that elections cannot be held — only in Punjab-1987 has this combined condition been used.

13. One-line summary. Manipur President's Rule imposed Feb 2025; extended Aug 2025 → Feb 2026 → again; Article 356(4); Bommai test backdrop.

31. Sansad Special Discussions (Dec 2025) — Vande Mataram 150 + Election Reforms

Key facts.

• Special discussion on 150th anniversary of "Vande Mataram" — first composed by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in 1875 (Bangadarshan magazine 1876), included in Anandamath (1882); first stanza adopted as National Song by Constituent Assembly on 24 Jan 1950.
• Discussion on Election Reforms — covered ONOE, common electoral roll, NRI proxy voting, expenditure caps.

⚠ UPSC Trap. National Anthem "Jana Gana Mana" — adopted 24 Jan 1950. National Song "Vande Mataram" — same date; equal honour, NOT enforceable to stand.

13. One-line summary. Vande Mataram 150 (1875 composition); National Song since 24 Jan 1950; Election Reforms special debate Dec 2025.

32. Repealing and Amending Act, 2025

Key facts. Removed outdated central laws and made minor amendments; part of the periodic "law-clearing" exercise (previous in 2019). Ministry: Law & Justice (Arjun Ram Meghwal).

13. One-line summary. Repealing & Amending Act 2025 — periodic obsolete-law clearance.

33. PRAGATI Platform

What it is. Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation — multi-modal video-conferencing platform chaired by PM monthly to monitor implementation of central/state projects and grievances; reactivated and updated 2025 with AI-based bottleneck prediction.

⚠ UPSC Trap. PRAGATI is not statutory; it is a PMO initiative since 2015.

13. One-line summary. PRAGATI — PMO-led monthly project monitoring; AI-enhanced 2025; non-statutory.

34. New Aadhaar App + UIDAI Updates (2025)

Key facts.

• New Aadhaar App launched 2025 — face-authentication-first; works offline-online; supports masked Aadhaar sharing via QR.
• Aadhaar Data Vault mandated for all entities holding Aadhaar.
• AePS (Aadhaar-enabled Payment System) cumulative volume crossed milestone in FY 2025–26.

🔗 Static Link. Aadhaar Act 2016; Puttaswamy (Aadhaar) 2018; UIDAI under MeitY.

13. One-line summary. New Aadhaar App (2025) — face-auth-first; offline-online; UIDAI under MeitY; Aadhaar Act 2016.

35. CISF as Seaport Safety Regulator (2025)

Already covered under maritime quartet. Stand-alone fact: CISF designated as the single statutory safety regulator for Indian ports (replacing fragmented arrangements).

13. One-line summary. CISF = single statutory safety regulator for Indian seaports (2025).

📌 Polity & Governance — Consolidated Prelims Facts Strip

🎯 Polity & Governance — Practice MCQs (Prelims Standard)

Q1. Consider the following statements about the Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill, 2024:

1. It inserts a new Article 82A providing for simultaneous elections.
2. It does not require ratification by State Legislatures.
3. The "appointed date" is to be notified by the Election Commission.

Which of the statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) None Ans: (a). Statement 2 wrong — parts touching States need ½ State ratification (Art 368(2) proviso). Statement 3 wrong — appointed date is notified by the President after first sitting of fresh Lok Sabha.

Q2. With reference to the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025, which of the following provisions were stayed by the Supreme Court in its 2025 interim order?

1. Mandatory inclusion of two women members in Waqf Boards.
2. Requirement that a person must have practised Islam for at least five years before creating a waqf.
3. Entrusting property-title disputes to revenue officers.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (b). Sec 3(r) and 3C were stayed; women member provision is operative.

Q3. Which one of the following Acts repealed the Indian Bills of Lading Act, 1856? (a) Merchant Shipping Act, 2025 (b) Indian Ports Act, 2025 (c) Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 2025 (d) Bills of Lading Act, 2025 Ans: (d).

Q4. Consider the following pairs (Act → Year of original statute replaced):

1. Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025 → Foreigners Act, 1946
2. Indian Ports Act, 2025 → Indian Ports Act, 1908
3. Income-Tax Act, 2025 → Income-Tax Act, 1961
4. Merchant Shipping Act, 2025 → Merchant Shipping Act, 1958

How many pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) All four (d) Only one Ans: (c).

Q5. Section 152 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is being challenged before the Supreme Court on the ground that it: (a) Reintroduces sedition under a new name (b) Violates the principle of double jeopardy (c) Permits warrantless preventive detention beyond 24 hours (d) Curtails fundamental right to property Ans: (a).

Q6. The Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Act, 2025 primarily amends which of the following?

1. Atomic Energy Act, 1962
2. Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010
3. Nuclear Suppliers Group Agreement
4. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans: (b).

Q7. With reference to Gayatri Balasamy v ISG Novasoft Technologies Ltd (2025), the Supreme Court held that: (a) Arbitral awards cannot be challenged once registered. (b) Appellate courts can modify arbitral awards in a limited manner. (c) Article 142 cannot be invoked in arbitration matters. (d) International commercial arbitration is outside Indian courts' jurisdiction. Ans: (b).

Q8. The Sixteenth Finance Commission has been constituted under which Article of the Constitution? Its recommendations apply to the period: (a) Article 280; 2025-26 to 2029-30 (b) Article 280; 2026-27 to 2030-31 (c) Article 281; 2026-27 to 2030-31 (d) Article 270; 2026-27 to 2030-31 Ans: (b).

Q9. Consider the following statements about Article 356(4):

1. It permits extension of President's Rule beyond one year only if a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation in the State.
2. Extension beyond one year also requires Election Commission's certification that General Elections to the State Legislative Assembly cannot be held.
3. It has been invoked beyond one year only once in Punjab (1987).

Which of the statements above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (d).

Q10. The "Presidential Reference" on Governor's powers to assent to State bills was made under which Article? It was the ____ Reference in the history of the Constitution. (a) Article 142; 14th (b) Article 143; 15th (c) Article 143; 16th (d) Article 132; 16th Ans: (c).

Q11. With reference to the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026, consider:

1. It decriminalises selected provisions across multiple Central Acts.
2. It provides for adjudicating officers to impose civil penalties.
3. It introduces a graded "advisory → warning → civil penalty" framework for first-time offences in certain Acts.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (d).

Q12. Which of the following correctly describes the eligibility for adoptive maternity benefit under the Code on Social Security, 2020, after the Supreme Court's 2026 ruling in Hamsaanandini Nanduri v UoI? (a) Restricted to adoptive mothers of children below 3 months. (b) The 3-month age limit on the adopted child has been struck down as unconstitutional. (c) Adoptive mothers are not entitled to maternity benefit. (d) Eligibility requires adoption to be registered under HAMA, 1956. Ans: (b).

Q13. The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 provides for a selection committee comprising the: (a) President, PM, CJI (b) PM, CJI, Leader of Opposition (c) PM, a Union Minister nominated by PM, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha (d) PM, Speaker of Lok Sabha, CJI Ans: (c).

Q14. Consider the following pairs (Body → Establishing instrument):

1. National Sports Board → National Sports Governance Act, 2025
2. Data Protection Board of India → DPDP Act, 2023
3. National Sports Tribunal → National Anti-Doping Act, 2022

Which is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (b). National Sports Tribunal is under the National Sports Governance Act, 2025, not the NADA Act.

Q15. With reference to Aligarh Muslim University v Naresh Agarwal (2024), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Court overruled Azeez Basha v Union of India (1967).
2. The Court conclusively declared AMU to be a minority institution.
3. Statutory recognition does not, by itself, extinguish the minority character of an institution.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (b). On factual minority status, the matter was remitted to a regular bench applying the new tests.

End of Chapter A — Polity & Governance. Next: Chapter B — Economy & Banking (file 02).